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Bro. Ostis Wilson Jr.'s Commentary |
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Old to New Testament Transition |
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Questions Concerning . . . |
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(Click on a heading to read
the respective article.) |
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The End of the Old Covenant
(Beginning of the New)
Question: When did the old covenant end, and when did
the new covenant begin?
Answer: Perhaps we can collect a few scriptures which
will answer this question to the inquirer's satisfaction. But
we must remember that all Scripture must be applied and
interpreted according to the established law of "Unanimity of
faith" which means that any particular text on any given
subject must be applied or interpreted in harmony with all
other scripture texts in the Bible on that subject. We cannot
take any single text and interpret it privately without
consideration for other texts on the subject and ever get a
proper understanding of any given subject. If we vary from
this law, there are some scriptures which might throw us off
course in the particular question we are considering now.
For example: Luke 16:16 says, "The law and the prophets were
until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached,
and every man presseth into it." To interpret this text
privately would seem to indicate that the kingdom of God came
in with John the Baptist. But there are other scriptures which
prove this could not be. John preached saying, "...Repent ye:
for the kingdom of heaven is at hand." (Matthew 3:2.) Jesus
preached this same thing saying, "...The time is fulfilled,
and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe the
gospel." (Mark 1:15.) Note they both said, "The kingdom of
heaven is at hand." It was just about to break in upon them,
but it had not yet broken forth and been set up. Also, Jesus
said in Mark 9:1, "...There be some of them that stand here,
which shall not taste of death, till they have seen the
kingdom of God come with power," which would seem to make it
clear that the kingdom of God had not come yet, even though
John had preached it and was even then preaching it. But Jesus
said in Matthew 12:28, "...The kingdom of God is come unto
you." It had come unto them in the person of Christ, but it
was not in full operation yet. Again Jesus said in Luke 17:21,
"...The kingdom of God is within you." Surely we would not
conclude that He was saying to those self-righteous Pharisees
that the kingdom of God was within them. It could not have
been in them, because they rejected the Lord of Glory Who
brought it. Neither was it yet within His own disciples at
that time. But He was merely stating the nature of the kingdom
of God and that the place of its establishment was in the
hearts of (within) the people of God who would be saved
through His blood.
Jesus' ministry was a preparatory ministry and work for what
was to come. He observed the law and customs and practices of
the Israelites in many respects, while at the same time
preaching grace. We might say there was a little overlapping
of dispensations during the life and ministry of Jesus between
law and grace. The law still had a standing until grace was
brought in fully.
Romans 10:4 says, "For Christ is the end of the law for
righteousness to every one that believeth." But at what point
was Christ the end of the law? Was it at His birth; during His
life and ministry, at His death, or when? In Matthew 5:17-18,
Jesus said, "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or
the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For
verily I say unto you, Til heaven and earth pass, one jot or
one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law till all be
fulfilled." But Jesus didn't fulfill the law until the time of
His death, so the law still had a standing during His life and
ministry.
In Hebrews 10:1, it says that the law had a shadow of good
things to come, and not the very image of the things.
Colossians 2:17 makes it clear that the shadow of things
contained in the law, (in this case it was the Sabbath, but
the same principle would apply to all the shadows contained in
the law) found their body, substance, reality, or fulfillment
in Christ. Colossians 2:13 says that Christ has quickened us
together with Himself, having forgiven us all trespasses, and
verse 14 says, "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances
that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out
of the way, nailing it to his cross." This text makes it clear
that all the carnal ordinances, rituals, and ceremonies
pertaining to the law were taken away when Christ was nailed
to the cross. Hebrews 10:8 says that God had no pleasure in
the sacrifices and offerings for sin which were offered by the
law. Then verse nine says, "Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy
will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish
the second." Thus, it is clear that Christ removed the old
covenant to make place for the new covenant, and verse ten
says that this was through the offering of the body of Jesus
Christ once for all. Hebrews 9:11-12 makes is clear that
Christ became a high priest of good things to come (the new
covenant) by His own blood.
All of the above texts make it clear that the fulfillment of
the law was not complete until Christ died. As Jesus hung upon
the cross, He said, "It is finished." These were His dying
words His last utterance. The law age with its daily and
yearly sacrifices for sin was ended and completely fulfilled
in Him Who said He came not to destroy the law but to fulfil
it. (Matthew 5:17.) The last, final, permanent, and continuous
sacrifice for sin had been offered, and was now complete. The
plan of salvation was completely executed and the dispensation
of grace had been ushered in. All things were now ready for
all to come into the kingdom of God (Matthew 22:2-4).
Matthew 27:50-51 says that when Jesus yielded up the ghost
(died), the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top
to the bottom. That veil divided between the holy place and
most holy place in the temple. Behind this veil in the most
holy place is where God Himself chose to dwell on the mercy
seat between the cherubims (Exodus 25:22.) Read verse 22 in
particular. I Samuel 4:4 says that God dwelt between the
cherubims Hebrews 9:7 says that the high priest was the only
one ever permitted in this most holy place, and then only one
time each year, and he was to sprinkle the blood of the sin
offering as he went. Then verse 8 says, "The Holy Ghost this
signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet
made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet
standing." But when died, the veil was rent, and God moved out
of that place, never again to dwell in a temple made with
hands (Acts 17:24). He was through with that temple and its
religious system forever, and it was left desolate without its
inhabitant (God). Luke 13:35.
Thus, we see the law was not abolished and ended until
Christ's death. It came to its end then. However, the new
covenant was not fully established until some 52 or 53 days
later, when the Holy Spirit came and filled the hearts of
believers, and set the Church in full operation under the new
covenant. |
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Christ - The Fulfillment of the
Law
Question: My question concerns the Old Testament Law.
In Ephesians 2:15 it speaks of Christ "Having abolished in his
flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments." Also in
Colossians 2:14, it speaks of "Blotting out the handwriting of
ordinances...nailing it to his cross." However, in I Timothy
1:8-10 it says, "But we know that the law is good, if a man
use it lawfully; Knowing this, that the law is not made for a
righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient,..." Does
this mean the law is still in use today to convict sinners of
sin?
It also says in Galatians 3:24, "...The law was our
schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ." Galatians 3:25 says,
"But after faith is come, we are no longer under a
schoolmaster." Is this speaking of humanity in general 2000
years ago, or does it mean the law is still bringing sinners
to Christ today?
Now I have a more specific question which partly hinges on the
former questions: In Deuteronomy 22:5 we read, "The woman
shall not wear that which pertaineth unto a man, neither shall
a man put on a woman's garment: for all that do so are
abomination unto the Lord thy God." I am surely convinced that
a woman should not wear slacks, so that is not the question. I
Timothy 2:9 makes it clear that a woman should dress modestly,
but what I want to know is: In dealing with others about this
matter is it correct to refer back to the Old Testament Law?
Answer: In regard to the first part of this question
the words, "In his flesh," in Ephesians 2:15 and "nailing it
to his cross" in Colossians 2:14 are important key words. Many
have difficulty in understanding that the Old Testament law
was not carried over, at least in part, into the New Covenant
of Grace because of the fact that there were many references
to it in the New Testament and even in the ministry of Jesus,
and He enjoined the observances of the law upon the people in
numbers of instances. Jesus observed the law in many respects
Himself. It must be remembered that the law was in effect
until the death of Jesus. There was a lapping over of
dispensations here and Jesus actually observed the law while
teaching grace which was to come. John 1:17 says, "For the law
was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ."
That grace that Jesus brought was not fully given unto us
until after the shedding of Christ's blood and the subsequent
coming of the Holy Ghost.
In Matthew 5:17 we see that Jesus came to fulfill the law. It
is also clear in the Scriptures that the law was not fulfilled
until the death of Christ as the supreme sacrifice for sin.
The Scriptures also make it clear that the law was a temporary
measure and that it had an end. In Galatians 3:19, we read,
"Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of
transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise
was made;..." This makes it clear that the law was to be in
existence until the "seed" should come. Then we would conclude
that after the "seed" came the law ceased to exist. Who was
that "seed?" Galatians 3:16 says, "Now to Abraham and his seed
were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of
many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ." Then
the law was to be in existence until Christ came. One of the
Scriptures used in the question Galatians 3:24-25 states that
the law was our schoolmaster to bring us to Christ. The word
schoolmaster was translated from a word which does not refer
to the teacher but it means "pedagogue" which was a servant
who escorted the children to school. He was not the teacher,
but took the children to the teacher. Likewise, the law was
not our teacher to teach us about Christ but was the agent
which brought us to Christ, the great Teacher. Then this
Scripture continues on to say that after that faith is come,
we are no longer under a schoolmaster. Consequently, when
Christ came, the law (pedagogue) had done its work and served
its purpose and brought us up to and delivered us to the great
Teacher, Christ. When this was accomplished, then comes into
focus the key words referred to in the first part of this
answer: "In his flesh" and "nailing it to the cross." When
Christ expired on the cross, He fulfilled the last jot and
tittle of the law and finished it, and it had no further use
or purpose in the plan of God as pertains to our salvation,
but was totally abolished at Calvary. From that point on,
everything pertaining to our relationship with God was on a
different basis faith in Christ instead of the works of the
law for both Jews and Gentiles. Accordingly, we read in Romans
10:4, "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to
every one that believeth."
No, the law is not still in use today to convict men of sin.
That was its purpose in its time, all right. We read in Romans
3:20, "...for by the law is the knowledge of sin." Again we
read in Romans 7:13, "...that sin by the commandment might
become exceeding sinful." and again in Romans 7:7, "...I had
not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust,
except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet." The bitter
truth is that it convicted men of sin while providing no
deliverance for them from sin, and consequently they lived in
a state of continuous, perpetual conviction and condemnation
with no means of escape until they became very wretched and
miserable. (See Romans 7:24.) Today we have the Holy Spirit in
the world to convict men of sin, so do not need the law for
that purpose. John 16:8 says concerning the work of the Holy
Spirit, "And when he is come, he will reprove [convince,
"margin"] the world of sin,..." That is His office work now,
and the glorious thing about being convicted by the Holy
Spirit is that as we respond to that conviction and follow
through and allow Him to perform His work of salvation in our
hearts, He administers grace to deliver from the sin He has
convicted us of and fills us with joy and peace.
As to the thought that the law is good if a man use it
lawfully; that is, if he teaches concerning the law as for
what it was and its purpose to give knowledge of sin and
consequently to restrain sin until Christ should come and put
away sin by the sacrifice of Himself, and when that was
accomplished it had no further use in the plan of God and came
to an end at Calvary; then it would be good and would enhance
the gospel of Christ. Actually the law was good in its time
and served as an effective restraint to sin and kept the Jews
from falling into the same depths of degradation of the
heathen nations around them. The only lawful use of the law
now is as outlined here.
In regard to using Old Testament Scriptures to support New
Testament truths I would say that at no time, and in no way,
do saint ministers teach the law system as such and in no way
do we teach anything as present day truth just because the law
said it. However, there are many things said in various parts
of the law and Old Testament scriptures which contain
principles of truth which are carried over and included in New
Testament doctrine. For example: Jesus said in Matthew
5:27-28, "Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time,
Thou shalt not commit adultery: But I say unto you, That
whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed
adultery with her already in his heart." Jesus taught very
positively against adultery; not because the law had said,
"Thou shalt not commit adultery," but because adultery is
wrong and involves a wrong principle. He carried this right
over into His teaching and expanded it to include mental
adultery or a lustful disposition in one's heart. Several
other similar examples could be given, but this will serve to
establish my thought and I will move on.
I feel the text under consideration in Deuteronomy 22:5 falls
in this category. At the time this text was written and in
that land the garments of both men and women were close to
identical. At least the outer garments were. Both wore long
robes and the principle thing that distinguished the women's
robes was a little decorative embroidery that was not on the
men's robes. Consequently, I wondered for a long time why it
would be so abominable to God if they should get them mixed up
and one put on the other's garment. It came clear to me in my
meditation at one time that there was a principle laid down
here. God made both man and woman and established certain
duties and courses of life for each of them. Here He lays down
a principle to forever condemn any attitude on the part of
either of them to want to be like the other and not be
satisfied with the way God made them and the course He laid
out for them. This principle is carried over into the New
Testament also. We read in I Corinthians 6:9-10, among many
other evil things, that effeminate persons shall not inherit
the kingdom of God. I define effeminate as a womanish man;
sissy. Webster is a little more sophisticated than that in his
dictionary and defines it: "1. having unsuitable feminine
qualities; unmanly; 2. marked by weakness and love of ease."
Also in I Timothy 2:9-10 and in I Peter 3:1-6 and other texts,
women are taught to be womanly. There are certain graces,
refinements and delicacies which belong to womankind, and
God's women are instructed and admonished to manifest these.
In other words, God wants men to be real men, look like real
men, act like real men, dress like real men and fill the place
of real men. Likewise, He wants women to be real women, look
like real women and dress like real women. In this country
where dress is one of the principle distinctive features
between men and women, this thought in Deuteronomy 22:5, which
is carried over into the New Testament, comes strongly into
focus. Accordingly, it is concluded that God's women must wear
dresses (womanly apparel) and God's men must wear pants (manly
apparel). The principle is forever the same. God still
strongly condemns any attitude on the part of either women or
men to want to be like the other.
No, we as saint ministers do not use Old Testament scriptures
alone to establish any point. There must be scriptures or
scriptural principles in the New Testament which relate to
them to make their use permissible in establishing or
confirming a doctrine. It is perfectly permissible, when a
good foundation has been laid in the New Testament, to use Old
Testament scriptures which relate to them and thus establish
the fact that God's attitude has always been the same on any
given point. |
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| The Tabernacle of Moses and the
New Testament Church Question: Where is
the Scriptural proof that the tabernacle of Moses was a shadow
or type of the New Testament Church and the steps by which one
enters into it?
Answer: In the 9th chapter of Hebrews, the first eight
verses give a detailed description of the Old Testament
Sanctuary with its altars, furnishings and all the
appurtenances thereto. Then in verse 9 it says, "Which was a
FIGURE for the time then present." This makes it clear that
the tabernacle of the First Covenant was a figure of
something. But what? In Hebrews 9:24 it says, "...the holy
places made with hands, which are the figures of the TRUE...."
In the 8th chapter of Hebrews, the 1st verse speaks of the
High Priesthood of Jesus and then verse two describing this
further says, "A minister of the sanctuary, and of the TRUE
tabernacle, which the Lord pitched and not man." (Hebrews
8:1-2) Further, Hebrews 9:11, "But Christ being come an high
priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect
tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this
building." In Matthew 16:18 we see clearly what the greater
and more perfect tabernacle was which the Lord pitched and not
man and which was not made with hands. Here Jesus says,
"...upon this rock I will BUILD my church...." Then it is
clear that the tabernacle which the Lord pitched (built) is
His church. You may ask: "Is the church referred to in the New
Testament as a tabernacle?" It certainly is in a number of
places. However, we must remember that the tabernacle was set
up during the Israelite's wanderings in the wilderness and was
of necessity a portable structure. When they became settled in
the promised land and were permanently established, then the
portable structure (tabernacle) was replaced by a permanent
structure (the temple) which was identical with the tabernacle
in its arrangements and served the same purpose in the exact
same way. In the New Testament, the church is more generally
referred to as a TEMPLE rather than a TABERNACLE. See
Ephesians 2:19-22 and II Corinthians 6:16. However, it is also
referred to as a TABERNACLE in Hebrews 8:2; Hebrews 9:11; and
Revelation 21:3.
The steps by which we enter the tabernacle or temple of the
Lord His New Testament Church are clearly typified in the Old
Testament Tabernacle also. In Exodus 38:1-20 is description of
the court surrounding the tabernacle, the brazen altar of sin,
burnt offerings and the laver; all of which were outside the
tabernacle proper, but necessary appurtenances to it;
consequently typifying necessary steps to enter into the
tabernacle or church. Into the court came the sinning
Israelite with his sin offering to be offered on the altar of
burnt offering. The court would typify the state of the
convicted sinner. Just as this court was an enclosure
separated from the outside world and general activities of the
people into which the Israelite entered to make his offering
unto God for his sins; so the convicted sinner stricken with
remorse and godly sorrow today becomes withdrawn from the
world and reckless, sinful living. His state is described in
II Corinthians 7:9-11 where it describes the person stricken
with godly sorrow as having a great carefulness wrought in him
not sinning recklessly and with a high hand as before. Also,
it speaks of him clearing himself and having a strong
indignation against sin and wrong that has ruined his life.
Also he has a vehement desire to be delivered and set free and
a strong feeling for revenge against the works of the devil
that has brought him to this ruined state.
Then as he follows these strong urges and impulses in his soul
and approaches unto the altar of sin offering, which typifies
Christ Himself (see Hebrews 13:10-12 & 16, together with I
Peter 2:5, which presents Christ as our altar), and in deep
penitence and humbleness of heart offers himself dead in
trespasses and sins on the altar of Christ (His mercy and love
manifested at Calvary), putting his faith in the merits of the
shed blood of the son of God and that only for his pardon and
forgiveness of sins, his sins are forgiven him for Jesus'
sake.
Then he approaches the laver which stood just before the door
of the tabernacle and was always filled with water in which
the priests were required to wash their hands and feet before
entering the tabernacle (this water typified the Word of God
John 15:3 and Ephesians 5:26 and I Peter 1:22, and the blood
of Jesus, Revelation 1:5 and I John 1:7), and is washed from
his sins and enters into the tabernacle of the Lord through
Christ, the Door. John 10:9. |
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The Veil of the Temple
Question: What was the significance of the veil in the
temple being rent in twain from top to bottom when Jesus died
on the cross?
Answer: It is clear that the temple, which was the
center of the Jewish religious system and of their worship
stood complete and intact with both of its veils right up
until the time Christ yielded up the ghost (died) on Calvary's
cross. Therefore, it is further confirmed that the Jewish
system had its standing and was valid until then, and that it
ended abruptly right there.
Matthew 27:50-51 says that when Jesus yielded up the ghost
(died) the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top
to the bottom. That veil divided the holy Place from the most
Holy Place in the temple. Behind this veil in the most Holy
Place is where God Himself chose to dwell on the mercy seat
between the cherubims (Exodus 25:17-22). Read verse 22 in
particular. I Samuel 4:4 says that God dwelt between the
cherubims. Hebrews 9:7 says that the high priest was the only
one ever permitted in this Most Holy Place. He could only
enter one time each year, and he was to sprinkle the blood of
the sin offering as he went. Then verse 8 says, "The Holy
Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all
was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was
yet standing." But when Jesus died, the veil was rent, and God
moved out of that place never again to dwell in a temple made
with hands (Acts 17:24). He was through with that temple and
its religious system and worship forever, and it was left
desolate without its inhabitant (God) Luke 13:35. It would
dwell in the "Greater and more perfect tabernacle which the
Lord pitched and not man." (Hebrews 8:2 and Ephesians
2:20-22.) Also, He dwells in the individual hearts of true
believers (read I Corinthians 6:19-20 and II Corinthians
6:14-18, especially verse 16).
Also, there is another very significant point to consider in
this. Those two compartments in the temple which were divided
by this veil signified two experiences of divine grace in the
hearts of believers in this New Covenant: namely,
justification and sanctification. The second compartment
represented a second experience or work of grace in the heart
(sanctification). But Hebrews 9:8 says that the way into this
part of the temple was not made manifest while the first
tabernacle was still standing. In other words, it was not
possible for people to obtain an experience of entire
sanctification and perfected holiness under the law, nor by
its sacrifices. But when Christ died, this veil was rent and
the way was opened up for all true believers to enter right on
into this experience and be filled with all the fullness of
God, and have the love of God shed abroad in their hearts by
the Holy Ghost, and to be perfected in holiness and to live
this life in the constant and continuous presence of God.
Hebrews 13:12 says that Christ suffered, died, and shed His
blood that He might sanctify the people with His own blood.
Since the price has been paid, the provision has been made,
and the blood has been shed for this purpose, we are
admonished in Hebrews 4:1, not to come short of it. So let us
all not loiter around nor hesitate, but move right on in and
possess the promised land and obtain the fullness of the
blessings of the gospel of Christ. |
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Rest to the People of God
(Sabbath)
Question: Please, will you discuss and explain the
following scriptures: Hebrews 4:4-5, Exodus 20:8 and 31:12-17?
Answer: All of these scriptures are related and combine
together in the same topic; namely, the rest of the people of
God. So we will unite them together in the discussion. Hebrews
4:4-5 says, "For he spake in a certain place of the seventh
day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all
his works. And in this place again, If they shall enter into
my rest."
These verses fall in the middle of a passage which continues
from the first verse through the eleventh verse. The first
verse says, "Let us therefore fear, lest, a promise being left
us of entering into his rest, any of you should seem to come
short of it." Verses 9-11 conclude the passage and they say,
"There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God. For he
that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his
own works, as God did from his. Let us labour therefore to
enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example
of unbelief." All of this passage refers to the rest of the
people of God, but the fourth verse injects the idea that the
seventh day and the Old Testament seventh day Sabbath had some
connection with it, so we will go back now and pick up a few
references pertaining to it and see if we can confirm this
relationship in the Scriptures.
In Exodus 16:23 we find mention of "the rest of the holy
sabbath unto the Lord." This is the first reference in the
Scriptures to the Sabbath and it was made 1400 years after God
had completed the work of creation. So it would seem evident
that no one before Moses, including Enoch who walked with God
and had the testimony that he pleased God, or Noah who found
favor with God through which he and his house were saved from
the destruction of the flood, or Abraham who believed God and
it was counted to him for righteousness and through his faith
became the father of all those who believe, nor any of the
patriarchs knew anything of, nor observed any Sabbath. It was
reserved for a special people, the chosen people of God
(Israel), and was given them at Sinai when the law was given
for a special, specific purpose. Note: This text refers to the
"rest of the holy sabbath" and indicates that the holiness of
the day consisted in total rest from physical labor on that
day. This thought is prominent in every reference to the
Sabbath, or nearly so, throughout the Old Testament
scriptures. This is important to the discussion and the
meaning of the Sabbath.
In Exodus 20:8-11 we have this: "Remember the sabbath day, to
keep it holy. Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
But the seventh day is the sabbath of the Lord thy God: in it
thou shall not do any work,... For in six days the Lord made
heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested
the seventh day: wherefore the Lord blessed the sabbath day,
and hallowed it." Again the idea of ceasing from all physical
labor on that day is related to the holiness of the day. They
were commanded to keep the day holy and in the very next verse
they were forbidden to do any work on that day, and the next
verse just emphasizes and confirms that command.
Exodus 31:12-17 is one of the passages included in the
question and it comes right in line here with the overall
discussion. Verse 14 says, "Ye shall keep the sabbath
therefore; for it is holy unto you: every one that defileth it
shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth any work
therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people." We
see here again that doing any work on the Sabbath constituted
a defiling of the day and the penalty was death. We have a
specific case recorded in Number 15:32-36 where a man was
found picking up sticks on the Sabbath day. They brought him
to Moses and Aaron and they put him in ward until they could
inquire of the Lord concerning him. The Lord said the man
should surely die, so the congregation stoned him and he died
there. This may sound very severe to us, but God had said in
Exodus 35:3, "Ye shall kindle no fire throughout your
habitations upon the sabbath day." He required strict
obedience to this command.
In the face of all this background of scriptures regarding the
Old Testament and with knowledge that it has a direct
connection with the passage in the fourth chapter of Hebrews,
(Hebrews 4:1-11) (verses 4-5), let us see how these two sets
of scriptures dovetail. In Colossians 2:16-17 we read, "Let no
man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of
an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which
are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ." We
see here that the Old Testament Sabbath with all of its
provisions was a shadow or type of the New Testament
Christians' rest to the soul through faith in Christ. The
holiness of that Old Testament Sabbath, consisting in
refraining from all physical labor on that day, was a type of
the child of God abandoning and forsaking all of his own
works, and casting himself wholly and without reservation on
the Lord for Him to work His works in him.
Hebrews 4:10 says, "For he that is entered into his rest, he
also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his." I
consider this text to refer to all of our own works, righteous
or wicked, and just allowing God to work His works in us
according to His own pleasure. In Romans 10:3, Paul spoke of a
class of people who were going about to establish their own
righteousness but had not submitted themselves unto the
righteousness of God. All such works and efforts of our own to
establish our own righteousness must be laid aside and our
trust must be fully in Christ and the atonement He made for
our righteousness if we are to find this rest in Him.
According to Exodus 31:14, any work done on the Sabbath
constituted a defiling of the day. Just so, any works we do
outside of Christ working is us constitutes a defiling of our
Sabbath, which is Christ. Paul said in Romans 15:18, "For I
will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ
hath not wrought by me,..." In I Corinthians 15:10 Paul
referred to his abundant labors but hastened on to add,
"...Yet not I, but the grace of God which was with me." Just
as any work constituted a defiling of the Sabbath and the
penalty was death, so any of our works and efforts in the
kingdom of God which do not fall in the category of being
anointed, inspired, and energized by the Spirit of God, will
constitute a defiling of our Sabbath (Christ), and if
persisted in will produce spiritual death to our souls. |
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Jesus' Atonement for Sin in the
Old Testament
Question: Did the blood of Jesus atone for people's
sins under the law or in the Old Testament times? Give
scriptures.
Answer: It is my understanding that it did and for the
following reasons:
In Revelation 13:8 we read, "...the book of life of the Lamb
slain from the foundation of the world." It is evident that
the plan of salvation and redemption was in the mind of God
from the beginning of the world. God made a definite promise
in Genesis 3:15 that the seed of the woman would bruise the
serpent's head. This was a sure promise of redemption and
salvation. The plan was formulated in the mind of God from the
beginning and He counted it as a thing already done even
though it was a few thousand years later that Christ actually
came and was slain. But in that period God provided an exact
prototype of the New Testament Church and its system of
worship and spiritual sacrifice and the blood of Jesus the
great Redeemer, in the Old Testament sanctuary with its system
of divine worship and blood sacrifices, etc. Then we read in
Hebrews 9:22, "And almost all things are by the law purged
with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission."
The context here strongly indicates that the blood of the
animal sacrifices which they offered under the law was a type
of the blood of Christ which was to be shed for the sins of
the people (all people) in time to come and was accepted in
lieu of the blood of Christ in this interim period to make an
atonement for the people's sins. Further, Hebrews 9:25-26
makes it more plain. "Nor yet that he should offer himself
often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every
year with blood of others; For then must he often have
suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in
the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the
sacrifice of himself." Note that this last verse says,
"...Then must he often have suffered since the foundation of
the world:..." This strongly indicates that Christ Himself was
deeply involved in every sin offering of blood of animals from
the foundation of the world clear on through to the time He
actually came to the world and shed His own blood for the
remission of the sins of the whole world.
Now we will look at Hebrews 9:15 which spells it out in black
and white plainly. "And for this cause he is the mediator of
the New Testament, that by means of death, for the redemption
of the transgressions that were under the first testament,
they which are called might receive the promise of eternal
inheritance." This text plainly states that by the death of
Christ a redemption was made for the transgressions of people
under the first covenant; the Old Testament time or law age.
Hebrews 8:4-5 teaches that the gifts and sacrifices which the
priests offered according to the law were examples and shadows
of heavenly things. Therefore we conclude that every time God
saw the blood of an animal sacrifice being offered for sin He
said within Himself that this is an example and shadow of
heavenly things to come, a kind of installment payment, a kind
of credit memorandum which will all be paid off when my Son
goes to earth on His redemptive mission to make an atonement
for all sin by the sacrifice of Himself and the pouring out of
His blood to the last drop. Are there any of us who would
presume to say there was no one saved back under the law? Of
course not. The Bible abounds with accounts of Old Testament
saints and some mighty men of God and champions of faith who
accomplished great things for God.
But Peter said in Acts 4:12, "Neither is there salvation in
any other: for there is none other name under heaven given
among men, whereby we must be saved." Ah, folks this is
eternally true. This covers all time past, present and future.
All who were saved in Old Testament times under the law were
saved by faith in Christ. All in this gospel age of time who
have been saved and are saved today, are saved by faith in
Christ. God never has, neither will He ever, recognize anyone
in heaven as a Saviour, but His Son Jesus Christ. But if this
be a question in your mind as to how this could be that they
would or could believe in a person who had never been born and
lived among men on the earth my answer is this: none of us
ever saw Jesus either. We never saw nor handled Him as the
Apostle John said he and the other apostles did. We never
heard Him speak nor saw His miracles which He did (many of
them). We never saw Him crucified, buried and then
resurrected. We never saw Him ascend to heaven. But we believe
all of this; that Christ was born of the virgin Mary, that He
lived here among men, that in due time He died and shed His
blood for the salvation of the ungodly, that He was buried and
rose again on the third day, that He ascended back to heaven
and is there right now at the right hand of the throne of God
making intercession for us. We believe all of this because the
Scriptures tell us this and the Holy Spirit confirms it in our
hearts. Then why should we count it as an incredible thing
that the Old Testament saints should believe in the same Son
of God, even as ourselves, when the Old Testament abounds
throughout with sparkling gems of prophecy concerning Him, His
coming, His work and mission and what He would do, etc. It is
not incredible and many of them did believe in the promise of
a coming Saviour and Redeemer and made their blood of animal
sacrifices for sin periodically as a token of their faith in
that promise and by virtue of that were saved.
Bear in mind that Jesus Christ is the focal point of the
history of the world and humankind past, present and future,
and that the whole plan of salvation for saving humankind was
complete in every detail in the mind of God from the beginning
and therefore Christ was a Lamb slain from the foundation of
the world. Therefore, God was counting it as a thing already
done in His mind from the dawn of the world's history and
therefore was extending saving mercy to all of those in Old
Testament times who believed the promise of His coming and
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Garment of Divers Sorts
(Separation)
Question: Please explain the scripture, "Thou shalt not
wear a garment of divers sorts, as of woollen and linen
together."
Answer: This scripture is found in Deuteronomy 22:11
along with some other mixtures which are forbidden, beginning
with verse 9. I will insert all of verses 9-11 here because
they all carry the same thought and teach the same thing.
"Thou shalt not sow thy vineyard with divers seeds: lest the
fruit of thy seed which thou hast sown, and the fruit of thy
vineyard, be defiled. Thou shalt not plow with an ox and an
ass together. Thou shalt not wear a garment of divers sorts,
as of woollen and linen together."
A parallel text to this is found in Leviticus 19:19 and reads
thus: "Ye shall keep my statutes. Thou shalt not let thy
cattle gender with a diverse kind: thou shalt not sow thy
field with mingled seed: neither shall a garment mingled of
linen and woollen come upon thee."
This last text forbid their cattle to gender with a different
kind. So let us look at a text now in regard to how God made
things in the beginning. Genesis 1:24-25. "And God said, Let
the earth bring forth the living creature after his kind,
cattle, and creeping thing, and beast of the earth after his
kind: and it was so. And God made the beast of the earth after
his kind, and cattle after their kind, and every thing that
creepeth upon the earth after his kind: and God saw that it
was good."
We see here that cattle were distinct and separated from the
beasts of the earth and also the creeping things. They were
all in separate categories, so I do not get the idea from
Leviticus 19:19 that God forbade the interbreeding of
different breeds and strains of cattle such as Hereford white
faces, black Angus, Holstein, etc., which all are in the
cattle category; but He did forbid the gendering of any and
all cattle with a horse, mule, bear or any other of the
multiplicity of beasts of the earth all of which are in a
different category and of a diverse kind. God saw that the way
He had made it was good and He forbade men to dabble with it
and change it.
All of the things mentioned in these texts may have had some
special bearing on the Israelites at that time. Perhaps they
did, though I am not knowledgeable enough to know what it was
altogether. I think it safe to conclude that there is no moral
evil contained in any of these things; else they would have
been carried over into the New Testament, but none of them
were. Murder, adultery, stealing, lying, coveting, etc. many
other things which contain a moral evil which were first
taught against and forbidden in the Old Testament, are carried
over into the New Testament and taught against and forbidden
there the same as in the old, but none of these things were.
However, though these things themselves were not carried over
into the New Testament, yet the principle and teaching of them
was; and it was a very important principle and constitutes a
very important and a far reaching truth for the people of God,
the spiritual Israel, in this age of time. That is what we
want to look at now.
Hebrews 10:1 says that the law had a shadow of good things to
come. Hebrews 8:5 says that the priests who offered gifts
under the law (verse 4) served unto the example and shadow of
heavenly things. Colossians 2:16-17 says that their meats and
drinks, holy days, new moons and sabbaths were all a shadow of
things to come of which Christ is the body of reality. In the
first 10 verses of the 10th chapter of I Corinthians is
related a number of things which befell the children of Israel
as judgments of God upon them for their disobedience and
apostasy. Then in verse 11 we read: "Now all these things
happened unto them for ensamples [types, margin]: and they are
written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world
are come."
Thus we see that the law and Old Testament contained many
types, figures, and shadows. It is in this category that I
think it most proper to cast the things mentioned in these
texts. They set forth an illustration of God's on-going
doctrine of separateness and "no-mixture" for the people of
God, which is set forth in different ways and numerous figures
throughout the Holy Scriptures. These things are all presented
literally but the main thrust of them all is spiritual in
application. This is a great and very important doctrinal
truth taught throughout the Holy Scriptures.
The very first thing God did in the creation in bringing order
out of chaos was to create light and the very next step was to
divide between the light and the darkness. (Genesis 1:1-5.)
Ever since that time God has presented truth and righteousness
as light and error and sin as darkness and maintained a strict
distinction between them. God's people are declared to be
"children of light" (Ephesians 5:8; Luke 16:8; John 12:36; I
Thessalonians 5:5, etc.). Those who live in sin and serve
Satan are spoken of as "children of the devil" (I John 3:10;
John 8:44; Matthew 13:38), and are said to be in darkness (I
John 2:9,11; John 12:35, 11:10, 3:19-20). God has maintained a
strict separateness throughout this light and darkness in the
spiritual realm.
In II Corinthians 6:14 it says, "...What communion hath light
with darkness?" Clearly NONE! Therefore, it says in II
Corinthians 6:17, "...Come out from among them, and be ye
separate, saith the Lord,..." Throughout the teachings of the
New Testament there is a strict separateness and distinction
maintained between light and darkness, truth and error,
sinners and righteous people, the people of God and the people
of this world. In Colossians 1:13 it says, "Who hath delivered
us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the
kingdom of his dear Son." I Peter 2:9 says, "...who hath
called you out of darkness into his marvellous light."
Ephesians 5:11 says, "...have no fellowship with the
unfruitful works of darkness, but rather reprove them." Verse
7 says, "Be not ye therefore partakers with them." All these
scriptures and many more make it clear that God takes everyone
that He saves out of darkness and puts them in the light. He
forbids them to have any communion, fellowship or part with
those works of darkness anymore.
In Deuteronomy 7:1-5, God commanded the children of Israel not
to have any communion at all with the nations around them.
They were commanded to utterly destroy them and destroy their
altars and burn their graven images and have no part in their
idolatrous worship. They were especially and specifically
forbidden to intermarry with them.
Verse 6 said that they were holy unto the Lord their God. The
context here makes it clear that "holy" in this text refers to
them being "Separated" unto the Lord from among the nations,
and not to a pure heart and sinless life in which connection
the term "holy" is used in the New Testament. That is also the
common use of the term "Peculiar" (peculiar people) in the
scriptures a separate and distinct people unto God. Note its
use in the following texts: Exodus 19:5-6; Deuteronomy 7:1-6,
Deuteronomy 14:2, Deuteronomy 26:16-19, Deuteronomy 28:9,
Deuteronomy 29:13; I Kings 8:53; Titus 2:14 (Purify UNTO
Himself a PECULIAR people); II Corinthians 6:14-18 which
spells out in plain, definite language the separateness and
distinctiveness of saints in light unto their God.
All of the above texts refer to God's people being PECULIAR
unto Himself and separated from the idolatrous nations around
them unto God. Psalm 4:3 says, "But know that the Lord hath
set apart him that is godly for himself:..."
This doctrine of separation of God's people from the nations
around them throughout the Old Testament and then from the
world, and sin, and formal and false religions and all the
works of darkness in the New Testament, is set forth and
taught in different figures throughout the Scriptures.
Whatever direct bearing it may have had in the lives of the
Israelites at that time, I consider the text in this question
and its related texts to be a part of the on-going teaching of
the Scriptures of separation and no-mixing for the people of
God. |
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Power to Cast Out Devils
Before Christ Came
Question: Did the Jews, their children, priests, or
prophets have power to cast out devils before Christ came on
the scene? I refer to Matthew 12:26 and Acts 19:13-20.
Answer: I am a little reluctant to enter into a
discussion on this question because I like to have a solid
scriptural foundation for everything I put out for the public
to read and I find that to be somewhat lacking in regard to
this question. I have searched but have found very little if
any direct scriptural references on this subject.
I find this reference in the writings of Josephus who is
accredited with being one of the most renowned of Jewish
historians. In book 8, chapter 2, paragraph 5, pages 240-241
of "Antiquities of the Jews" he says in discussing the
superlative wisdom which God gave unto Solomon, "God also
enabled him to learn that skill which expels demons which is a
science useful and sanative (curative; restorative). He
composed such incantations also by which distempers are
alleviated. And he left behind him the manner of using
exorcism, by which they drive away demons, so that they never
return; and this method of cure is of great force unto this
day;..." Josephus in the same paragraph states that he had
seen a man named Eleazar driving out evil spirits from people
and still making mention of Solomon and reciting the
incantations which he had composed. Now Josephus lived shortly
after Christ's time and he declares that these things were
going on then and that those who did this were still using the
name of Solomon and reciting the incantations which he
composed. It would then probably be safe to conclude that this
practice had been going on all down through the annals of
Jewish history from the time of Solomon and that his name was
being used in connection with it all along.
However, to be fair to everybody, I will also insert a
footnote from these same pages (240-241). I do not know who
wrote the footnotes throughout this volume but suppose it to
be the translator of the volume, William Whitson, a Cambridge
University professor of mathematics. He says, "I entirely
differ with Josephus in this his supposal, that such books and
arts of Solomon were parts of that wisdom which was imparted
to him by God in his younger days; they must rather have
belonged to such profane and curious arts as we find mentioned
in Acts 19:13-20, and have been derived from the idolatry and
superstitions of the heathen wives and concubines in his old
age, when he had forsaken God, and God had forsaken him, and
given him up to demonical delusions." He concludes this
footnote with this, "As for the following history, it confirms
what Christ says in Matthew 12:27, 'If I by Beelzebub cast out
demons, by whom do your sons cast them out?'"
No matter which opinion we choose to adopt, it seems certain
that all through Jewish history from Solomon on, there were
men among the Jews engaged in casting out demons or evil
spirits. And it is certain, and we do find solid scriptural
foundation in Matthew 12:27 that there were such people in the
time of Jesus. In the case in Acts 19:13-20, the seven sons of
one Sceva, a priest, must have been familiar with the practice
of calling someone's name (perhaps Solomon's) in expelling
demons, only in this case they repeated the name of Jesus whom
Paul preached. At any rate it never worked. They were
practicing a curious art, and God never gave His support to
it. It would appear that all that kind of work that went on in
Jewish history was spurious also. |
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