|
|
| |
|
Bro. Ostis Wilson Jr.'s Commentary |
|
|
Communion (Lord's Supper) |
|
|
|
|
Questions Concerning . . . |
|
(Click on a heading to read
the respective article.) |
| |
|
|
| |
|
|
| |
Procedure for the Lord's Supper
Question: The Lord's Supper How should it be done? By
each person breaking a small piece from a cracker or bread or
what (?); by each person using a small individual glass for
the fruit of the vine? Can the method as Christ did it in the
Bible be changed even though the meaning is the same? Some
people dip bread in a glass of juice. Is this all right? How
often should the Lord's Supper be taken?
Answer: First, let me say that we could not change the
method as Christ delivered it to us in the Bible and the
meaning still be the same. It is the most sacred and sublime
of all the ordinances and should not be tampered with or
changed in any manner. Every part of this ordinance signifies
some particular part in redemption and we lose that
signification and reality if we change any part of it in any
way.
In I Corinthians 10:16-17 we read, "The cup of blessing which
we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The
bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of
Christ? For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we
are all partakers of that one bread." It appears evident to me
that the real communion of the body and blood of the Lord
among believers could not be signified in any other way than
by all of them partaking of one loaf and one cup representing
the body and blood of the Lord. Paul makes it clear in I
Corinthians 10:17 quoted above that all believers, though they
be many, are one bread and one body because they are all
partakers of that one Bread. A number of small individual
glasses and a number of small individual wafers or pieces of
bread may be a proper signification of sectism and division,
or maybe of individualism, but not of the unity and oneness of
believers as they partake of that one bread and one body.
In I Corinthians 12:13 we read, "For by one Spirit are we all
baptized into one body,...and have been all made to drink into
one Spirit." Again this can only be properly signified by our
drinking of the one cup containing the emblem of Christ's
blood.
In I Corinthians 11:23-24 we read, "....the Lord Jesus the
same night in which he was betrayed took bread: And when he
had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my
body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me."
As Jesus held that bread in His hand and presented it to them,
He announced that it was His body broken for them, which
breaking took place only a few hours after that in His
crucifixion on the cross. How could His body being broken be
signified by a number of individual wafers or pieces of bread
separated from the loaf by the minister and passed out to the
communicants? It could not. When one bread (loaf) is passed
and each communicant breaks off a bit he is reminded of the
body which was broken for him. It is the same with the cup
containing the emblem of the blood of Christ which was shed
for the remission of sins; and we all drink of it together,
and thus we have communion with one another in the Spirit as
well as with Christ.
I know of no Scripture which tells how often we should observe
the Lord's Supper. In I Corinthians 11:26 it says, "For as
often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the
Lord's death till he come." It does not say how often; it just
says, "As often." Acts 20:7 says, "And upon the first day of
the week, when the disciples came together to break bread,..."
Some have supposed from this that the Lord's Supper should be
observed every Sunday when Christians come together to worship
God. I do not see any particular point in this inasmuch as it
is said in Acts 2:46 that they broke bread daily from house to
house. Why then would we not conclude that it should be
observed every day and from house to house because the early
Jerusalem converts did that, as to say it should be done every
Sunday because one Scripture says the disciples came together
to break bread on the first day of the week? In John the 20th
chapter we have two instances of the disciples meeting on the
first day of the week (verses 19 and 26), but in neither of
these instances does it mention breaking of bread. I agree
that perhaps saints should observe this ordinance more often
than we do in order to keep the sacrifice of Jesus in our
behalf more fresh in our minds, but I know of no scripture
which tells how often to do it.
As saints observe this holy, sacred, sublime ordinance in the
Spirit, they are drawn closer to Christ and His sufferings and
sacrifice than perhaps at any other time or in any other thing
they do; and it all becomes more real to them. As a verse in
one of our songs says, "Borne away in mind and spirit to that
solemn awful scene of Mount Calvary's sacred summit where we
see the crimson stream, flowing from the side of Jesus that
has washed us snowy white; Here we seem in awe to compass
round the reeking cross tonight." Not only so, but we are
drawn closer to each other also as we in the Spirit partake of
that one bread (the body of the Lord which was broken for us)
and drink of that one cup (the blood of Jesus which was shed
for the remission of our sins). As we all together partake of
the body and blood of the Lord (in symbol), His grace and love
flows from heart to heart and we are knit together in love in
heart. "Our souls in fellowship embrace, And live in sweet
communion." In this ordinance is represented to us one of the
grandest themes of all Holy Writ unity of God's people in the
Spirit and the oneness it produces in them, and my exhortation
to all saints is to observe it as often as they have
opportunity and observe it in the spirit and just exactly like
it has been given to us, for therein is the clearest
representation. |
| |
|
(Top of Page) |
|
|
| |
Judas and the Lord's Supper
Question: Did Judas partake of the Lord's supper? The
account in the 22nd Chapter of Luke sounds as if he did. (Luke
22:21)
Answer: It has not been my understanding that he did
and I shall endeavor to set forth my reasons for believing he
did not.
First, let us keep in mind as we consider this question that
there were two suppers considered in the scriptures right
together at the same sitting the Passover Supper and the
Lord's Supper. And though they were together at the same
sitting, yet they were distinct and separate and signified
different things and we must consider them in that way to get
the proper understanding. This Passover Supper that Jesus ate
with His disciples at this time was the last official Passover
to be observed. It passed out of existence that night and has
therefore come to be called "The Last Supper." It had been
observed by the Israelites ever since the night they came
forth out of Egypt until that night when Christ ate it with
His disciples for the last time. It was coming to its end
right then. That Paschal Lamb which was eaten in the Jew's
Passover Supper was a type of Jesus Christ Himself. Paul makes
this clear in I Corinthians 5:7 where he says "...For even
Christ our passover is sacrificed for us." Therefore this
typical Paschal Lamb was to be fulfilled the very next day at
Calvary when Christ, the Lamb of God, offered Himself without
spot to God as a sacrifice for our sins. Therefore, the type
being fulfilled had no further practical use, so passed away
forever at the death of Christ; and He became the Paschal Lamb
for the house of God, the Church of God, for this gospel age
of time.
At the close or finish of this Passover Supper, Jesus
instituted the Lord's Supper which was a brand-new ordinance
which was to be observed by the saints, the disciples of
Christ throughout this gospel age of time. I refer to the
Lord's Supper as the "Memorial Service of the Church." Jesus
said concerning it in Luke 22:19, "...This do in remembrance
of me." Paul wrote in I Corinthians 11:23-26 "...the Lord
Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread: And
when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, Take, eat:
this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in
remembrance of me. After the same manner also he took the cup,
when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in
my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of
me. For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye
do shew the Lord's death till he come." So it is altogether
clear that this ordinance belongs to the Church for this age
of time and is to be observed by the Church until Jesus comes
back again.
So we have here the last Passover Supper which was ever to be
officially observed at the closing out of the Old Testament
Dispensation, and the first Lord's Supper to be officially
observed at the ushering in of this New Testament
Dispensation. These were observed both at the same sitting but
were separate and distinct and this has considerable
importance in ferreting out the answer to this question
clearly.
The first three gospels bring out about both of these suppers
Matthew 26:17-30; Mark 14:12-26; Luke 22:7-20. Now there are
some important points in these passages which may help to
guide us to our conclusion.
First, let us consider a passage in John's gospel which is of
much importance. Strange as it may seem, and it does seem
strange to me indeed that John made no reference to the Lord's
Supper anywhere in his gospel. Neither does he mention
directly the last Passover Supper. However, from the things he
wrote in the 13th Chapter of his gospel and comparing them
with what Matthew, Mark and Luke wrote in direct reference to
the Passover; the setting of this 13th Chapter of John was in
the Passover Supper. Jesus announces in verse 21 that one of
them would betray Him. He makes this same announcement in
Matthew 26:21, and that was clearly in connection with their
eating the Passover. Also in Mark 14:18, while they were
eating the Passover.
When Jesus had made this announcement, they began to ask Him
who it was, and He told them it was the one to whom He would
give the sop when He dipped it and He handed it to Judas. John
13:27 says "And after the sop Satan entered into Him. Then
said Jesus unto him, That thou doest, do quickly." Then verse
30 says "He then having received the sop went immediately out:
and it was night." Oh, the awful night that fills a person's
soul when he turns away from the "Sun of Righteousness," the
"Light of the World" and walks out into darkness! But the
important thing in this verse as it pertains to our question
is "Having received the sop went immediately out." This seems
to make it clear to me that Judas left while they were still
eating the Passover Supper so would not have been in there
when the Lord's Supper was instituted because that was at the
end of the Passover Supper.
Matthew records in Matthew 26:26-28, "And as they were eating,
Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to
the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. And he
took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying,
Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of the new testament,
which is shed for many for the remission of sins." The same
statements are recorded in Mark 14:22-24. But Luke is more
specific in identifying when and in what order this happened.
In Luke 22:20, he said that Jesus took the cup AFTER SUPPER
and declared it to be the new testament in His blood, etc.
This pinpoints the time when the bread (emblem of His body)
and the cup (emblem of His blood) these ingredients of the
Lord's Supper were introduced; it was after the Passover
Supper was finished. Matthew said in Matthew 26:26, "And as
they were eating,..." and Mark said in Mark 14:22, "...As they
did eat,..." Now I recognize that these accounts do not
pinpoint any specific time. It could have been any time during
the Passover Supper that Jesus did this. But, since Luke
specifies that it was AFTER SUPPER we could conclude it to be
right at the winding up of the Passover Supper that this was
done. In this case, Judas could not have been present because
he left sometime during the Passover Supper, according to
John's account. (John 13:21-30.)
Now the problem of the questioner concerning the account of
Luke 22:19-23, could be that verses 21-33, regarding the hand
of the one who betrayed Him being with Him on the table,
follows verses 19-20 where the bread and cup were introduced.
This would surely seem to indicate Judas was still there. But,
since Matthew, Mark, and John all relate this incident in
connection with the Passover Supper, I am inclined to think
that Luke did not adhere strictly to chronological continuity
at this particular point and that verses 21-23 should have
been inserted up above there in the discussion of the Passover
Supper. |
| |
|
(Top of Page) |
| |
|
|
